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Soames on “Analytic Philosophy,” and the Special Case of Philosophy of Law (Leiter)

I am grateful to Jason for calling attention to the lovely, lucid, and synoptic essay by Scott Soames (USC) on "Analytic Philosophy in America," which I read with appreciation yesterday evening.   I concur with Jason’s recommendation that this is an essay that educated non-philosophers ought to read if they want to have an idea what has been going on the last 40-50 years in English-speaking philosophy (as Soames notes at the end, much of what he is describing is philosophy in the English-speaking world, not just philosophy in America).  That being said, I want to note one reservation and then raise one question.

The reservation is this:  the two pages on philosophy of law contain errors.    Soames is not a philosopher of law, and he quite reasonably gives most of his attention to developments in philosophy of language–given his own expertise and the importance of that field to the story he is telling.  But the errors in the two pages (pp. 28-29) on philosophy of law range from the minor to the fundamental, and they deserve flagging (and perhaps they can still be corrected).

On the rather minor end of the spectrum:  he compares the "revival" in political philosophy effectuated by Rawls and Nozick to the "revival" in philosophy of law effectuated by Dworkin.  But surely it was Hart who brought about the integration of jurisprudence into English-speaking philosophy generally, and rejuvenated philosophical interest in law; Dworkin, Feinberg, Raz, Finnis and others simply continued that development.  (One can acknowledge this point without agreeing with my stronger claim that the Dworkinian program is now discredited and defunct.)  Indeed, among philosophers who think about law, Raz’s influence is far greater than Dworkin’s.  Also, and even more minor, Soames describes Dworkin as "at New York University since 1994," when he joined the NYU faculty in the late 1970s (1977, according to the Directory of American Law Teachers).  (Perhaps 1994 is meant to be a reference to the date of his cross-appointment to the philosophy department.)

On the more important, substantive end of the spectrum:  Soames describes Hart’s positivism as "a view according to which legal validity is, in the main, a matter of fidelity to the institutional sources of positive law, and, except at the margins, independent of substantive moral considerations."  Soames’s gloss on Hart is a Razian one (no quarrel there, this is a survey piece, after all), but even on that gloss, it is no part of the positivist view that legal validity is ever a matter of "substantive moral considerations":  such considerations may influence how a judge decides cases, but they are not themselves criteria of legal validity.  This conflation (between criteria of legal validity and how judges ought to decide particular cases) suggests that Soames has simply adopted wholesale the confusion for which Dworkin is most famous (or infamous, as it were) among legal philosophers, namely, between the questions "what is law?" and "how ought a judge decide the case before him?"  This comes out even more clearly when Soames writes:

As opposed to this [the positivist view of legal validity], Dworkin argues for a theory of "constructive interpretation" in which there are no cases in which the contents of laws, and their applications to particular cases, are, in principle, entirely determined by the routine application of conventional, legal rules–independent of any moral assessment of the consequences of particular applications, and any judgment about how those consequences bear on the social purpose of the laws, and the intentions of those who enacted them. 

The bolded portion conflates the distinction, emphasized by Raz, between "pure" and "applied" legal statements:  that is, the distinction between "pure" statements like "character evidence is inadmissible in a civil trial to prove action in conformity therewith on a particular occasion" (which is a legally valid rule of evidence in the U.S.) and "applied" statements like "defendant’s prior conduct reveals his habitual behavior, and so may be admitted into evidence."  Positivists are not committed to the view that applied legal statements are always "entirely determined by the routine application of conventional, legal rules," and Hart, of course, is explicit that there will be a range of cases where judges will have to exercise discretion. No positivist believes, either, that valid "pure" legal statements should be applied in particular cases without regard to "the consequences of particular applications."  To the extent that a judge has a duty to decide according to law, then the judge must apply the valid legal norms (those with the requisite institutional sources); but it is no part of the positivist thesis about legal validity to deny that in some cases, the duty to apply legally valid norms is, and ought to be, overriden by other equitable and moral considerations.

Soames then characterizes Dworkin’s view of adjudication as follows:

Instead, all adjudication is seen as requiring the judge to weigh substantive moral concerns with existing legal history, so as to arrive at the most just and morally desirable principles for achieving the legitimate ends of law, while accomodating, so far is reasonably possible, the results of past decisions and existing legal practices.

The "instead" is misplaced, of course, since the positivist view of validity is not a theory of adjudication.

Now to the question.  As longtime readers know, I don’t think "analytic philosophy" exists except as a kind of sociological artifact, and I don’t think anyone can give a satisfactory account of it that isn’t wildly over- or under-inclusive.  (See here for one of many discussions of this topic.)  In this regard, I was struck by Soames’s gloss on page 6:

[I]t is important to remember that analytic philosophy is neither a fixed body of substantive doctrine, a precise methodology, nor a radical break with most traditional philosophy of the past–save for varieties of romanticism, theism, and absolute idealism.  Instead, it is a discrete historical tradition stemming from Frege, Moore, Russell, Wittgenstein, and the logical positivists, characterized by respect for science and common sense, belief in the relevance of logic and language for philosophy, emphasis on precision and clarity of argumentation, suspicion of a priori metaphysics, and elevation of the goals of truth and knowledge over inspiration, moral uplift, and spiritual comfort–plus a dose of professional specialization.

I assume most informed folks think Paul Churchland, John McDowell, Bernard Williams, Alvin Plantinga, Laurence BonJour, Hilary Putnam, George Bealer, and Christopher Peacocke are "analytic" philosophers, but doesn’t each of them fail to fit one or more of the characteristics noted by Soames?  What do readers think?  Non-anonymous postings will, as usual, be strongly preferred.

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21 responses to “Soames on “Analytic Philosophy,” and the Special Case of Philosophy of Law (Leiter)”

  1. Like Brian, I found Soames' piece to be valuable but a little skewed. For one thing, there was very little discussion of epistemology, apart from mentioning the Gettier problem, contextualism, and tangential notice of the Quinean criticism of analyticity. There was no discussion of the most influential epistemologist of the 20th century, Roderick Chisholm, or of the debates about foundationalism vs coherentism or internalism vs externalism.

    As far as Brian's comment that many paradigmatic analytic philosophers fail to satisfy all of the conditions Soames lists, I think Brian is mistaken in taking those conditions to be necessary ones. Rather, they are markers of the analytic approach. A better test of Soames' criteria is this: can anyone name a bona fide analytic philosopher who fails to meet any or most of the criteria Soames lists?

  2. Brian Weatherson

    I've had issues with some of Soames's characterisations of traditions in the past, but I think as a gloss of analytic philosophy that's pretty good. I suppose I'd quibble about 'suspicion of a priori metaphysics' – unless perhaps 'suspicion' is meant to be taken so lightly that even David Lewis qualifies, not to mention all the analytic Christian metaphysicians.

    But otherwise I don't really see what's wrong here. It's true that several paradigmatic analytic philosophers think (or thought) we'd gone too far in formalising issues. (I guess Bernard Williams could be placed in this group.) But even those philosophers agree that logic and language are at least relevant; the disagreement seems to me to be an in-house dispute about whether a basically good reform was taken too far.

  3. As both Brian Leiter and Steve Hale point out, it is very difficult to include everything–even cursorily–in an overview such as this. That said, I was pleased that Soames made the effort to trace major themes and attitudes in analytic philosophy back to the pragmatists. After what seems like years of willful forgetting, this recuperation (and others, like Brandom's in his review of Menand's _The Metaphysical Club_) is overdue. Missing, however, from the three causes that he cites for analytic philosophy's rise is the political. Certainly, Soames is right to cite immigration, Quine, and demographic changes as causes. However, there have also been two recent books (by McCumber and by Reisch) which have argued that the cold war political climate had much to do with american philosophy taking certain directions and abandoning others. These arguments may be factually wrong or they may have overestimated this climate's effects, but I would argue that this thesis should at least have been mentioned as a potential cause (or else evidence should have been presented that the effect of the political climate on philosophy in America was negligible).

  4. Two quick notes: (1) The McCumber book is incompetent and riddled with errors about philosophy and the profession; I don't know the Reisch book. It is an interesting question how the political climate influenced the direction academic philosophy took, but the McCumber book warrants no conclusions one way or the other. (2) Brian W. notes one worry about the Soames characterization (namely, a priori metaphysical theorizing and, say, the flourishing of analytic Christian metaphysics), but I have others in mind (regarding clarity, regarding regard for common sense), but I am curious to hear from others first. Steve is probably right, though, about how these characteristics are to be taken.

  5. However unclear Peacocke and McDowell's writings are to some, they are quite distinct from the kind of writing one finds in Hegel's *Phenomenology of Spirit* or British Idealists such as Bradley (I realize Bradley has his defenders, but there are many parts of *Appearance and Reality* that are totally uninterpretable). An anecdote (since that is what blogs are for): as a teenager, I went to Germany with the intention of becoming a Hegel scholar. After two semesters of Hegel seminars, I picked up a copy of Evans's *Varieties of Reference* are remembered being amazed by how easy it was to get to the arguments. And *The Varieties of Reference* was a half-finished book posthumously edited by John McDowell, i.e. not exactly the model of lucid analytic prose. Give me any page of McDowell or (especially) Peacocke, and I can explain the argument to any philosopher. Given an entire year, Klaus Hartmann was unable to explain anything in Hegel's metaphysics to me (unless you count as speaking in a Hegelian metalanguage explaining).

  6. The anecdote may say more about Klaus Hartmann than Hegel!

  7. I was struck by Soames' rather vague and simplistic characterization of Analytic philosophy.

    Soames claims that analytic philosophy is, 'characterized by [1] respect for science and common sense, [2] belief in the relevance of logic and language for philosophy, [3] emphasis on precision and clarity of argumentation, [4] suspicion of a priori metaphysics, and [5] elevation of the goals of truth and knowledge over inspiration, moral uplift, and spiritual comfort–plus [6] a dose of professional specialization.

    Characteristics 1-3 are surely characterics of good philosophy not analytic philosophy. What good philosopher doesn't 'respect common sense' or doesn't emphasize 'precision and clarity of argumentation'?
    I take it that Soames real point here is to differentiate Analytic philosophy from Continental. (Surely these criteria don't work to weed out historical philosophers like Aristotle, who fits 1-3 as well as any Analytic.) But this is surely just another example of an Analytic philosopher being biased about Continental philosophy. Let me translate what Soames means: Husserl's arguments aren't precise and logical. Merleau-Ponty isn't into science. Heidegger doesn't worry about language and meaning. Rubbish.

    Criterion 4 is probably the most useful in defining Analytic Philosophy, but it doesn't get very far either. Yes, Analytic philosophers are 'suspicious of a priori metaphysics', but then again this doesn't mean that they won't do a great deal of substantive a priori metaphysics. They just do their a priori metaphysics hesitantly, i.e. never without a lot of justification and qualification. But, then again, any philosophers who see Hume and Kant's arguments (i.e. every philosopher alive today) as carrying some weight will only do metaphysics reluctantly and with some anti-Humean argument to back them up. (It should be noted that Continental Philosophers on the whole seem to have as much, if not more, of an aversion to discussing the noumenal world as analytic philosophers, sticking instead to discusions of phenomena. Sure, Heidegger is an exception to this rule, since he makes substantive claims about things in themselves, but so do Lewis and Armstrong).

    Criteria 5 fails to recognize that all philosophers but knowledge, understanding and truth above other concerns. So too do mathematicians, for what its worth. I think the real point here is that Analytic philosophy often seems to have no connection to life, while Continental Philosophy is. Analytic philosophy surely is relevant to life, it just takes a bit of explanation how this is. Moreover, is Soames trying to say that any philosophy which is relevant to life, which is uplifting and comforting, disregards truth and is designed to be uplifting and comforting? Odd.

    Criteria 6 is worthless, as near as I can tell. Every study, including Continental philosophy, divides itself into specializations. This also seems pointless.

    Moreover, I don't see how the conjunction of these criteria helps matter. If this is the best characterization of Analytic philosophy that can be managed, then why shouldn't I believe that there is no such thing as Analytic philosophy.

  8. I also found the over-view useful and interesting. It's not exactly how I'd tell the story but it's certainly one of the stories there to be told. As long as we're picking nits, though, it should be pointed out that Scanlon's _What We Owe to Each Other_ really isn't a work of political philosophy (though of course it has implications for it) but rather of ethics proper. It's a pretty minor point, but if it can be changed yet it probably should be.

  9. Without judging the question of whether Heidegger is a good philosopher, I think it's fair to say that with respect to:

    [1] respect for science and common sense,

    Heidegger had this to say:

    Appeal is made to common sense. But whenever common sense is taken to be philosophy’s highest court of appeal, philosophy must become suspicious. – Basic Problems of Phenomenology, p. 14.

    With respect to[2] "belief in the relevance of logic and language for philosophy,"

    I think it's fair to say he thought that philosophy was relevant for logic and language, but at least not obviously the other way around. (Circa 1930s)

    With respect to [3] "emphasis on precision and clarity of argumentation,"

    The emphasis (at least in Being and Time) is on correctly describing what is given in non-cognitive intentional relations of comportment. But this activity of correctly describing can hardly be called "clear" in the sense of interest to analytics. And there are lots of arguments in Being and Time, and other works, but it's false, I think, to say that they are emphasized.

    With respect to [4]"suspicion of a priori metaphysics", Heidegger is all about the a priori metaphysics. (at least in Being and Time)

    No comment about [5].

    With respect to [6], here's a heideggarian thought about "professionalization":

    There are people nowadays who travel from one conference to another and are convinced in doing so that something is really happening and that they have accomplished something; whereas in reality they have shirked the labor and now seek refuge in idle talk for their helplessness, which of course they do not understand. – History of the Concept of Time, p. 274.

    So whatever the merits of Soames' criterion, it looks like according to it Heidegger does not count as an analytic philosopher.

  10. Brian Leiter is right about the section on the philosophy of law–the piece is otherwise terrifically helpful, but this section is marred by misprisions that won't yield to a quick fix. In fact, it is a stretch to regard the Dworkinian position as part of the American spin on *analytic* philosophy at all. I do agree that it has a significant parochial (American) element: the obsessive focus on judicial reasoning in appellate courts. The same parochialism is seen in the work of the American Legal Realists who were certainly *not* contributors to the analytic tradition. In his essay "Hart's Postscript and the Character of Political Philosophy", Dworkin expresses sharp hostility to what many people regard as the analytic tradition in legal philosophy. A more obvious place to look for its influence would be in the works of American philosophers like Dewey, Feinberg, Regan, Lyons or Coleman.

  11. Brian,

    The Reisch book William referred to is How the Cold War Transformed Philosophy of Science (Cambridge, 2005). It's based on extensive archival work (including FBI files obtained through FIA) and is an excellent companion to Soames's two-volume history, which is obviously (and perhaps necessarily) less historically contextualized. Reisch's book sheds light on the general depoliticization of analytic philosophy, esp. analytic philosophy of science, during the mid-20th century.

  12. Mr. McDaniel,

    I’m not sure if you understand how vague Soames’ criteria for what counts as analytic are.

    Let me explain:

    1. The quote you give does not imply that Heidegger doesn’t ‘respect’ common sense. Moreover, it says nothing about his views on science. It only says that when we appeal to common sense as unassailable we had better be careful. Who doesn’t agree? Anyway, suppose it is true that Heidegger talks a little smack about common sense. So what? Suppose some philosopher of mind says we ought to take care when appealing to common sense about the mind body problem since Cartesian/Platonic Dualistic ideas have pervaded our culture and thus skew our intuitions. Does this mean they aren’t doing analytic philosophy? No.

    2. Do you think Continental philosophers (even Heidegger) don’t do philosophy of language? Do you think that they think that it is not of central importance? Don’t some analytic philosophers think philosophy of language is not so important? (Wait for Peter Unger’s ‘All the Power in The World’. Read it. Get back to me on whether he’s an analytic about language.) The problem again is that this criterion is too vague. What attitude do philosophers have to take to language and logic in order to be analytic? Do they have to use some predicate calculus in their papers in order to get some analytic street-cred?

    3. How clear does Heidegger, or any other philosopher, have to be in order to be analytic? (I’ve heard that undergrads tend to do fairly well with Heidegger by the way) And, clear to who? To Logicians? What is this ‘sense of clear that analytics are interested in’? Is it stylistic? Soames doesn’t say. You don’t either. I can’t understand McDowell, nor, I would think, can the average well read non-philosopher. Is he Analytic? Yes. Why? He’s liked by the Analytics.

    4. Is Heidegger’s metaphysics a priori? Is he a rationalist? I’m not so sure. Sure, he does a lot of metaphysics from the armchair. So do Lewis, C.B. Martin, D.M. Armstrong, Unger, etc.

    5. No comment on your no comment.

    6. I don’t get the relevance of this quote. It seems like Heidegger is just venting about conferences. I feel the same way sometimes going to colloquia. (But only sometimes… my professors may be reading this.)

    Anyway, suppose you’re right about Heidegger, and he’s clearly not an Analytic according to these criteria. (I think he’d be happy to hear that he wasn’t Analytic.) What about the rest of the Continentals? We’re going to need more a more substantive idea of what the Analytic program is in order to differentiate Analytic from Continental. Now, maybe it was unfair of me to criticize Soames for his definition of ‘Analytic’ since it is a bit of a throwaway. But he’s writing on the history of Analytic. He should give us at least a working definition of ‘Analytic’?

  13. On law, I agree with Green: it is odd to place Ron Dworkin as a central figure in American analytic legal philosophy when Dworkin is on record expressing much hostility towards this kind of philosophy. I also take Leiter's well rehearsed point that even if this was not a problem, Dworkin's influence on legal philosophers these days is marginal. We read his work largely as a foil to advance our arguments: we are Dworkinians no longer (even if we were once). Given the explosion in work re: the philosophy of criminal law, it was good to see Feinberg get a word in, but it would have been best to make some mention of Antony Duff's work, too.

    On Scanlon, Lister is quite right: the book is about practical reasoning, not political philosophy as such.

    On analytic philosophy, I quite like the quote that Leiter highlights. Of course, many early figures in German Idealism and British Idealism were perhaps more obsessed with logic than most philosophers these days: they took logic so seriously they saw a need to write books on logic that would serve as the cornerstone for their philosophies. Plus, in all cases (including Hegel's), countless references to science as evidence for their views—from the natural sciences to psychology—abound. If these earlier figures had a problem, it is that the science has changed (and Hegel should never have backed Goethe on colour against Newton…). (An implication now is simple: philosophers today who base their views too strongly on science seem just as likely to become historical artifacts in the ways that, say, Schelling's views on natural science have become…a sobering thought. The scene is very, very different with political philosophy and philosophy of law which might overcome this problem of becoming a historical footnote seemingly overnight.) Moreover, this obsession with logic carries over into a suspicion of a prior metaphysics—again, all these early figures wrote tomes on this. The one difference, perhaps, is the "a dose of proefessional specialization" as these figures of old saw themselves as more "philosophers" rather than "philosophers of…". Yet, this "analytic" move is true, too, of continental writers today. If anything, I think certainly the British Idealists of old were every bit interested in logic and metaphysics as philosophers today. Unlike persons today, the Idealists virtually wrote tomes on these subjects, far more than we can say of most writing today….

    Finally, as I am a Hegel scholar, I'd be happy to help Jason Stanley come to grips with Hegel's philosophy. A real pity Stanley gave up so quickly… ;o)

  14. It certainly seems right to point out that all of the philosophers Prof. Leiter mentions clearly exhibit MOST of the criteria that Soames spells out. But note a crucial criterion that everyone seems to be passing over in these comments: Soames says that analytic philosophy is "a discrete historical tradition stemming from Frege, Moore, Russell, Wittgenstein, and the logical positivists". Surely this gives us grounds to include the folks in question and exclude, say, Husserl and Heidegger. Right? Or is this one of the criteria that past discussions have ruled out as unhelpful?

    It's quite unlikely that a cut-and-dry definition of "analytic philosophy" is ever going to get off the ground; there will always be counterexamples. All we can do is point to the "family resemblances": and it seems that a certain degree of historical/cultural continuity is an important marker, no?

  15. Margaret Atherton

    It seems as if the account in the passage quoted from Soames (I haven't read the entire piece yet) is being read by most people as doing two things: (1) Distinguishing what "we" (clearminded) people do from what those other (fuzzyminded but uplifting) people do and (2) identifying the result of a specific historical event in which philosophy, led by Frege, Russell, etc took a new turn. The passage quoted may help us feel good about ourselves but it does not seem to me to capture accurately a difference between what went on before and what went on after Frege, Russell, etc. Shouldn't our understanding of analytic phlosophy have at least some historical specificity or else we do run the danger of proposing that analytic philosophy is what we good philosophers do.

  16. Leiter begins by wondering whether the list of characteristics of analytic philosophy Soames offers should be taken as offering a list of individually *necessary* conditions for being an analytic philosopher.

    Then we have Kemtrup's comment: "Let me translate what Soames means: Husserl's arguments aren't precise and logical. Merleau-Ponty isn't into science. Heidegger doesn't worry about language and meaning." This, of course, follows only if the list provides individually *sufficient* conditions for being an analytic philosopher.

    Since when is "characterized by" used in *either* of these ways? (The sentence at issue is: "Analytic philosophy… is a discrete historical tradition stemming from Frege, Moore, Russell, Wittgenstein, and the logical positivists, characterized by… ")

  17. I must be missing David Manley's point, for surely it is quite natural to treat the statement, "Xs are characterized by A, B, *and* C" as meaning Xs have all three characteristics. "Xs are characterized by A, B or C" would clear up ambiguities (and also be less informative). I am happy to allow Steven Hales's suggestion (which it appears Manley endorses) that we should not read the statement one natural way, and instead treat it as offering up characteristics, not all of which are necessary to count as part of the relevant tradition.

  18. The claim that analytic philosophy is a tradition that stems from Frege, Moore, Russell, etc. is just wrong for ethics (hardly a minor part of philosophy), since the key elements of the analytic approach were all present in Sidgwick, who wrote decades before those figures. Moore's Principia Ethica was long thought to have revolutionized philosophical ethics but many now recognize that, great though that book was, many of its central ideas and arguments were borrowed from Sidgwick and were in fact utterly familiar by the time it appeared.

    In this connection Soames's reference to "moral uplift" is ironic, given Broad's remark, in the course of praising Sidgwick's analytic virtues, that "by diffusing a grateful and comforting aroma of ethical 'uplift'" T. H. Green has managed to turn more undergraduates into prigs than Sidgwick will turn into philosophers.

    The fact that metaphysics, epistemology, and philosophy of language took a new analytic turn around 1900 doesn't that mean all branches of philosophy did. Ethics had made the move decades before.

  19. Even "Xs have all three characteristics", which I hear as clearly stronger than the original, imports the generic noun phrase, so the universal claim isn't entailed; e.g. 'cats are diffident' isn't falsified by Auntie's psychotic kitten. And in my idiolect, at least, using 'or' makes the sentence far to weak for the intended purpose; e.g. "the local homes are characterized by stucco walls or wood siding".

  20. "Cats are characterized by diffidence" had better be falsified by eight different clear-cut cases of cats lacking the characteristic!

  21. Stephen O'Hanlon

    There is still a lag in many philosophy departments in accepting that ethics / political philosophy / philosophy of law is "real" philosophy, i.e., real analytic philosophy that encompasses generally epistemology, philosophy of science, philosophy of language, methodology, and some philosophy of mind.

    However, Soames’ article is really just an overview. He does include Rawls and Nozick. Personally, having found much of "real" philosophy to be less interesting than ethical / political / legal philosophy, I don't think there's too much wrong with being left out of the mainstream of "analytic" philosophy. No doubt, Ayer would say that most of ethically-related philosophy is meaningless but even Wittgenstein noted that mathematics and science (which conventional analytic philoppsy tries to attach itself to) leave the most important questions of man untouched. This is the business, in large part, of ethics / political / legal philosophy and I don't think there's any need to try and hang on to strict logical positivist definitions of analytic philosophy if they don't want us.

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